The purpose of "Education"
The Biblical definition of education is the moral training of children that they may know how to align their deeds with the Law Word of God. Education is about Moral foundations not intellectual achievement. The scriptures place the family under the obligation of educating their children in the Law of God. When they rise up, when they walk by the wayside, and when they lay down. The Law of God is the schoolmaster which brings men to Christ. Moden man is in need of a revival, a return to the teach of and obedience to the Law of God. The catechism of the Bible starts with training in the Law of God.
As Rushdoony said, "A Christian curriculum to be true to itself must be in every respect Christian." The Law of God is the most basic thing that must be recovered if we are to educate our children the way God wants them educated. Any "subject" material outside of the Law of God (such as math) must be the servant of the Law of God, always upholding what God has spoken, and never contradicting it. These "subjects" must be tools used in taking dominion, but they must never detract from what must be central to education: the Law of God.
The scriptures place the family under the obligation of educating their children in the Law of God. When they rise up
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So basically what you are saying is that you want Questioning prohibited, correct?
I don't think the idea is to prohibit questioning. But questioning must always be subservient to the Creator and what he has revealed to us about his creation. There is nothing not created, therefore there is nothing that derives its meaning and purpose apart from God. Modern thought is premised upon the finality of man's word, not God's. Thus questioning becomes an authority in and of itself as a right of man to which the conclusions thereof even God and his revelation in the Bible must submit.
The Bereans searched the Scriptures to see if St. Paul spoke the truth. Questioning man and using the Scriptures as your standard is not wrong. Questioning the Scriptures and using your autonomous sinful mind to question God is a sin. The Word of God is our standard because God is the judge, not us.
How do we know which laws of God in the Bible are for today and which are not? We all agree the sacrificial law is no longer applicable, but what about the law, for example, of marrying you brother's wife if he should die in order to produce offspring? The Humanist world attacks Muslims for their Sharia law to put homosexuals to death, and that is also what Biblical Law decrees, is another example. There are laws about slavery. Again, how do we know which laws of God in the Bible are for today and which are not?
@David I.
1. "We should presume that Old Testament standing laws continue to be morally binding in the New Testament, unless they are rescinded or modified by further revelation"
2. "The New Testament teaches us that - unless exceptions are revealed elsewhere - every Old Testament commandment is binding, even as the standard of justice for all magistrates (Rom. 13:1-4), including every recompense stipulated for civil offenses in the law of Moses (Heb. 2:2). From the New Testament alone we learn that we must take as our operating presumption that any Old Testament penal requirement is binding today on all civil magistrates. The presumption can surely be modified by definite, revealed teaching in the Scripture, but in the absence of such qualifications or changes, any Old Testament penal sanction we have in mind would be morally obligatory for civil rulers."
These come from No Other Standard by Greg Bahnsen, which you can read online for free.
To apply those principles to your question, Levirate marriage may have been modified by verses like 1 Corinthians 7:39.
Putting homosexuals to death - that's become a loaded question, but the direct New Testament discussion is lacking. In terms of putting people to death, some will say that Jesus said that he who is without sin should cast the first stone (John 8:7), but they forget the last part of that same chapter, where he revealed himself as the I AM. His accusers took up stones to cast at him (John 8:59). Did Jesus repeat his discourse on casting the first stone? No, instead he ran away from them, possibly because they were without (the) sin (of blasphemy). John 10:22-39 shows a similar result; Jesus about to be stoned, then Jesus speaking up, but instead of his opponents holding back, they went for him, but he escaped their grasp.
With slavery, people usually assume it must be reintroducing the slavery of the old South. Biblical law doesn't prescribe that, but rather it sets a form of indentured servitude e.g. those who are not kidnapped, and to be released every seventh year - unless they choose to remain that way, in which case their ear is pierced (Deuteronomy 15:12-18, Deuteronomy 24:7). Colossians 4:1 (addressed to Christian masters) and Ephesians 6:5-9 (addressed to Christian slaves and masters) aren't seeking to abolish it.
There are several other verses, but I'll stop here for the time being.
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